Friday, August 19, 2016

Mesenteric Artery Occlusion NCLEX Question with Answer and Rationale

A 63-year-old man has had insulin dependent diabetes mellitus for over two decades. The degree of control of his disease is indicated by the laboratory finding of hemoglobin A1C 10.1%. He has noted episodes of abdominal pain following meals. These episodes have worsened over the past year. On physical examination, there are no masses and no organomegaly of the abdomen, and he has no tenderness to palpation.

 Which of the following pathologic findings is most likely to be present in this man?

A Ruptured aortic aneurysm
B Hepatic infarction
C Mesenteric artery occlusion
D Acute pancreatitis

Correct Answer (C)
Rationale: He has 'abdominal angina' from diminished blood flow to the bowel as a consequence of severe atherosclerosis. Persons with diabetes mellitus may have this finding, because all branches of major arteries to the bowel are affected by atherosclerosis.

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